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MFA EXIT EXAM

REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers Part 4

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REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers

REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers Part 4

 

The following is a list of questions that commonly appear in the Director General of Shipping Exit exam for Medical First Aid (MFA) /

REF MFA Exit Exam. It is highly recommended to prepare thoroughly for these exams to avoid the need to retake them and incur additional costs.

These questions have been gathered based on feedback from previous exam takers. If you have additional questions or suggestions, please feel free to share them in the comments section.

 

What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for?
A) Location of pain.
B) Last bowel movement.
C) Last meal.
D) Latest related injury.
Answer: C) Last meal.

Which of the following is NOT a system of the body?
A) Respiratory.
B) Musculoskeletal.
C) Endocrine.
D) Follicular.
Answer: D) Follicular.

What are the signs of severe airway obstruction?
A) Mild airway obstruction.
B) C.O.P.D.
C) Severe airway obstruction.
D) Complete airway obstruction.
Answer: C) Severe airway obstruction.

What is the most important step in managing shock?
A) Keep the patient warm.
B) Give CPR as soon as possible.
C) Give first aid for the illness or injury.
D) Elevate the lower extremities.
Answer: C) Give first aid for the illness or injury.

In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, what drives their breathing?
A) High oxygen level.
B) Low oxygen level.
C) High carbon dioxide level.
D) Low carbon dioxide level.
Answer: B) Low oxygen level.

What is the chain of services known as, of which emergency responders are a part?
A) Emergency Patient Care (EPC) system.
B) Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.
C) Professional Emergency Care (PEC) system.
D) Community Medical Care (CMC) system.
Answer: B) Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.

Which acronym is used to assist emergency responders in assessing the patient’s level of responsiveness?
A) SAMPLE.
B) EMCA.
C) OPQRST.
D) AVPU.
Answer: D) AVPU.

Which arterial pressure point should be used to control bleeding in a severe laceration to the forearm that direct pressure has failed to control?
A) Carotid.
B) Radial.
C) Femoral.
D) Brachial.
Answer: D) Brachial.

Pressing on a fingernail bed to observe the return of normal color is done to check for what?
A) Normal blood circulation to that part.
B) The presence of fractured fingers.
C) Pain in the area.
D) A lack of oxygen in the blood.
Answer: A) Normal blood circulation to that part.

What do signs such as confusion, weak pulse, cold and clammy skin, and irregular and gasping breathing indicate, along with the mechanism of injury?
A) An oncoming faint.
B) Emotional stress.
C) Internal bleeding.
D) Onset of diabetic coma.
Answer: C) Internal bleeding.

Which infectious disease has a vaccine presently available?
A) Herpes.
B) AIDS.
C) Mononucleosis.
D) Hepatitis B.
Answer: D) Hepatitis B.

Where can the AIDS virus be found?
A) Blood and semen.
B) Sharing eating utensils.
C) Shaking hands.
D) Perspiration.
Answer: A) Blood and semen.

In a hazmat situation, where are airway management and immobilization carried out?
A) Hot zone.
B) Warm zone.
C) Cold zone.
D) Neutral zone.
Answer: B) Warm zone.

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, what does a breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute indicate?
A) Above normal.
B) Below normal.
C) Normal.
D) Indeterminate.
Answer: A) Above normal.

REF MFA Exit Exam

During a primary assessment, the emergency responder would assess for which of the following life-threatening conditions:

A) Chest pain.

B) Hypothermia.

C) Sprained ankle.

D) Severe headache.

Answer: A

The normal pulse rate for an adult is:

A) 20-40 beats per minute.

B) 40-60 beats per minute.

C) 60-100 beats per minute.

D) 100-120 beats per minute.

Answer: C

During an emergency, the acronym RICE stands for:

A) Rest, Ice, Compress, and Elevate.

B) Respiratory, Ice, Compress, Elevate.

C) Rest, Intubate, Compress, Elevate.

D) Respiratory, Intubate, Compress, Elevate.

Answer: A

During the primary assessment, the emergency responder would assess for which of the following:

A) Allergies.

B) History of vaccinations.

C) Family history.

D) Personal income.

Answer: A

Select the correct option that best describes the following condition: “A condition where air build up in the pleural space, collapses the lung and puts pressure on the heart is called”:
A) Closed pneumothorax
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Hemothorax
D) Open pneumothorax

Answer: B

Select the correct option that best describes the recommended duration after which oxygen humidification should be used if oxygen is administered:
A) 15 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) 90 minutes

Answer: B

Select the correct option that best describes a male patient’s condition if he is having difficulty breathing, using his neck muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red blotches on his chest, and his neck is swelling:
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Asthma

Answer: A

Select the correct option that best describes what to do when giving mouth-to-nose AR:
A) Hold the casualty’s mouth closed
B) Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing into the casualty
C) Tilt the head back less than for the mouth-to-mouth method of AR
D) Keep the mouth and nose closed between breaths

Answer: A

Select the correct option that best describes the maximum time that a rapid body survey should take:
A) 30 seconds
B) 45 seconds
C) 60 seconds
D) 90 seconds

Answer: A

Select the correct option that best describes the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio during one-rescuer CPR for adults:
A) 5:1
B) 15:2
C) 30:2
D) 35:2

Answer: C

Select the correct option that best describes where the tip of an oropharyngeal airway should reach when correctly sized:
A) The angle of the patient’s jaw
B) The top of the patient’s ear
C) The patient’s uvula
D) Two-finger width from the flange

Answer: C

Select the correct option that best describes the guideline for normal systolic blood pressure in an adult male:
A) 50 plus the man’s age up to 150 mm Hg
B) 65 plus the man’s age up to 120 mm Hg
C) 80 plus the man’s age up to 130 mm Hg
D) 100 plus the man’s age up to 150 mm Hg

Answer: D

Select the correct option that best describes when to offer aspirin to a patient with chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:
A) Before the first dose of nitro
B) After the first dose of nitro
C) After the second dose of nitro
D) After the third dose of nitro

Answer: B

Select the correct option that best describes what a first aider should do when suctioning a non-breathing adult casualty:
A) Apply suction as soon as the suction tip touches the mouth
B) Insert the suction tip deep into the larynx
C) Suction for no more than 15 seconds
D) Insert the tip with the curved side towards the tongue

Answer: C

 

Select the correct option that best describes what a flail chest results from:
A) Three ribs are broken on each side of the chest
B) Part of the spine becomes separated from the ribs
C) The breastbone is broken in three places
D) Several ribs are broken in more than one place

 

 

Which factor is the most critical in defibrillation?

A) The time from collapse to defibrillation.
B) The skill of the AED responder.
C) The patient’s previous cardiac history.
D) The type of defibrillator used.

Answer: A

 

In which heart rhythm will the AED shock a patient?

A) With a sinus rhythm.
B) In asystole
C) In ventricular fibrillation.
D) With pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

Answer: C

 

When is a shock administered when transporting a patient with an AED?

A) Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded.
B) Whenever the machine indicates shock is necessary.
C) When the vehicle is stopped.
D) When the vehicle is traveling at less than 20 km per hour.

Answer: C

 

When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, where should the electro depends be placed?

A) Directly on a pacemaker.
B) Two inches away from the pacemaker.
C) Within one inch of the pacemaker.
D) At least one inch away from the pacemaker.

Answer: D

 

What is the maximum number of shocks that should be given to a hypothermic patient?

A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.

Answer: A

 

What should be done after signs of circulation are observed in a casualty that has been shocked?

A) Remove the AED from the scene.
B) Leave the AED attached to the casualty.
C) Disconnect the cables from the AED.
D) Remove the pads from the chest.

Answer: D

 

What is the most immediate serious complication associated with burns?

A) Shock
B) Infection
C) Scarring
D) Hypothermia

Answer: A

 

Which type of burn involves all layers of the skin?

A) Superficial
B) Partial-thickness.
C) Full-thickness.
D) First degree.

Answer: C

 

How should a burn be classified if the casualty has a hoarse voice, blistering around the mouth and nose, and reddened arms after a generator explosion?

A) Critical
B) Superficial
C) Moderate
D) Minor

Answer: A

 

What percentage of the body surface does the area of the palm of the hand represent in burn injuries?

A) One
B) Two
C) Five
D) Nine

Answer: A

 

What is an abrasion?

A) Deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding.
B) Partial or complete loss of a body part
C) Objects through soft tissue.
D) The result of a sharp scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis

Answer: D

 

What is a soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object called?

A) A laceration.
B) An avulsion.
C) A contusion.
D) A concussion.

Answer: C

 

What is tetanus?

A) An infection that involves the lower jaw.
B) A condition that only occurs in the third world.
C) A condition caused by a virus.
D) A condition that can be prevented by immunization.

Answer: D

 

What does the acronym SHARP refer to in wound injuries?

A) The assessment of the severity of a wound injury.
B) Signs and symptoms used to determine the need to transport.
Answer: B

 

The condition in which the body’s heat loss is greater than the heat produced is known as:

A) Heat exhaustion.

B) Hypothermia.

C) Heat cramps.

D) Heatstroke.

Answer: B

 

REF MFA Exit Exam

 

When treating a casualty with heatstroke, which of the following is the most effective method of lowering the body temperature?

A) Applying ice packs to the groin and armpits.

B) Placing the patient in a cold bath.

C) Wrapping the patient in wet towels and fanning him/her.

D) Drinking large amounts of cold water.

Answer: B

 

Symptoms of heat exhaustion include:

A) Cold and clammy skin.

B) Rapid pulse and breathing.

C) Dizziness and confusion.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

The most effective way to avoid heat exhaustion is to:

A) Drink plenty of water.

B) Avoid prolonged exposure to high temperatures.

C) Take regular breaks in a cool place.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

 

The symptoms of heat cramps include:

A) Profuse sweating.

B) Rapid heartbeat.

C) Muscle pain and spasms.

D) Nausea and vomiting.

Answer: C

 

A casualty is showing signs of dehydration, including dry mouth, sunken eyes, and reduced urination. Which of the following is the most effective treatment?

A) Drinking water with added electrolytes.

B) Drinking small amounts of water frequently.

C) Drinking large amounts of water at once.

D) Drinking beverages containing caffeine.

Answer: A

 

Which of the following is a potential cause of hyponatremia?

A) Drinking too much water.

B) Drinking too little water.

C) Excessive sweating.

D) None of the above.

Answer: A

 

The best way to prevent altitude sickness is to:

A) Avoid high altitudes.

B) Ascend to high altitudes gradually.

C) Descend to lower altitudes as soon as symptoms appear.

D) All of the above.

Answer: B

 

The symptoms of altitude sickness include:

A) Headache and nausea.

B) Shortness of breath.

C) Rapid heartbeat.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

 

The treatment for altitude sickness includes:

A) Descending to a lower altitude.

B) Oxygen therapy.

C) Drinking plenty of fluids.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

 

REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers Part 1

REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers Part 2

REF MFA Exit Exam Question Answers Part 3

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